Re: copyright after death

[Norman Bauman nbauman@xxxxxxxx]

Because the law isn't clear. What's fair use? I've asked lawyers. They
can't give me a useful answer.

At 09:16 AM 8/17/02 EDT, BrennerNY@xxxxxxxx wrote:
>
>In a message dated 8/16/02 9:22:54 PM Pacific Daylight Time,
>nbauman@xxxxxxxx writes:
>≪ Sometimes the author is dead, and has no heirs, and would have been happy
> to know that his work would have been printed after his death, rather than
> be forgotten.
> Why make the presumption that the untraceable author wouldn't want it
> reprinted? Why not make the presumption that the author would want it
> reprinted?  ≫
>
>  It's amazing how consistently the wishes of dead people happen to
>coincide with our own.
>  Maybe the author would have wanted to make extensive revisions before
>reissuing it. Maybe he was an ornery recluse who just didn't want to be
>published anymore. Who knows?
>  But why make presumptions at all? Why not act on the basis of
>incontestable reality -- i.e., that the wishes of the author are unknown and
>unknowable, but the law is clear?
>  Lynn
>
>

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Norman Bauman
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Alternate address: nbauman@xxxxxxxx
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